[NEohioPAL] Etymological question for theatre folk

[Martin Friedman]

When Shakespeare was writing in the 1590's and into the early 1600's there were no copywright laws. Playwrights were stealing plays and ideas for plays rights and left. So, when a playwright wrote a play for
a company of actors they were only given their roles and the cue line. They were given their sides to learn and only their sides so they couldn't sell the play to someone else. 
What do you think?
martin friedman

From: Robert Hawkes <rhhawkes at gmail.com>
To: neohiopal at lists.neohiopal.org
Sent: Saturday, September 17, 2011 9:46 AM
Subject: [NEohioPAL] Etymological question for theatre folk


Can anybody enlighten me as to why excerpted passages of plays for reading at auditions are called "sides"? 
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