[NEohioPAL] Etymological question for theatre folk

Martin Friedman martinfriedman98 at yahoo.com
Sat Sep 17 14:28:53 PDT 2011


Yes. One side of the paper or you got your particular part, or side. Or not.


From: Zed <zz_zzzzzz_zzzz at yahoo.com.au>
To: Martin Friedman <martinfriedman98 at yahoo.com>
Cc: Robert Hawkes <rhhawkes at gmail.com>; "neohiopal at lists.neohiopal.org" <neohiopal at lists.neohiopal.org>
Sent: Saturday, September 17, 2011 5:25 PM
Subject: Re: [NEohioPAL] Etymological question for theatre folk


But why the word "sides"?  Was it written on both sides of the paper? or?
D



On Sep 17, 2011, at 4:57 PM, Martin Friedman wrote:

When Shakespeare was writing in the 1590's and into the early 1600's there were no copywright laws. Playwrights were stealing plays and ideas for plays rights and left. So, when a playwright wrote a play for
>a company of actors they were only given their roles and the cue line. They were given their sides to learn and only their sides so they couldn't sell the play to someone else. 
>What do you think?
>martin friedman
>
>
>From: Robert Hawkes <rhhawkes at gmail.com>
>To: neohiopal at lists.neohiopal.org
>Sent: Saturday, September 17, 2011 9:46 AM
>Subject: [NEohioPAL] Etymological question for theatre folk
>
>
>Can anybody enlighten me as to why excerpted passages of plays for reading at auditions are called "sides"? 
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