[NEohioPAL] Etymological question for theatre folk

[Tony Kovacic]

Also, it was that actor's "side"   of the conversation.  And, my wife, 
who is a master of seemingly useless, obscure, arcane, and mostly 
forgotten knowledge and minutiae, says that she has heard Martin's 
explanation somewhere else too.  I have learned that she is rarely 
wrong.  Very rarely.


On 9/17/2011 5:28 PM, Martin Friedman wrote:
> Yes. One side of the paper or you got your particular part, or side. 
> Or not.
>
> *From:* Zed <zz_zzzzzz_zzzz at yahoo.com.au>
> *To:* Martin Friedman <martinfriedman98 at yahoo.com>
> *Cc:* Robert Hawkes <rhhawkes at gmail.com>; 
> "neohiopal at lists.neohiopal.org" <neohiopal at lists.neohiopal.org>
> *Sent:* Saturday, September 17, 2011 5:25 PM
> *Subject:* Re: [NEohioPAL] Etymological question for theatre folk
>
> But why the word "sides"?  Was it written on both sides of the paper? or?
> D
>
> On Sep 17, 2011, at 4:57 PM, Martin Friedman wrote:
>
>> When Shakespeare was writing in the 1590's and into the early 1600's 
>> there were no copywright laws. Playwrights were stealing plays and 
>> ideas for plays rights and left. So, when a playwright wrote a play for
>> a company of actors they were only given their roles and the cue 
>> line. They were given their sides to learn and only their sides so 
>> they couldn't sell the play to someone else.
>> What do you think?
>> martin friedman
>>
>> *From:* Robert Hawkes <rhhawkes at gmail.com <mailto:rhhawkes at gmail.com>>
>> *To:* neohiopal at lists.neohiopal..org 
>> <mailto:neohiopal at lists..neohiopal.org>
>> *Sent:* Saturday, September 17, 2011 9:46 AM
>> *Subject:* [NEohioPAL] Etymological question for theatre folk
>>
>> Can anybody enlighten me as to why excerpted passages of plays for 
>> reading at auditions are called "sides"?
>>
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